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The Fiction of Accuracy

I've been thinking about the power of the word "accuracy" when applied to fiction. The word is most often applied to historical fiction, which is important in many respects, but does that mean we should not question aspects of these stories that are deemed "accurate"?

I am talking about a very specific scenario here, being Regency and Victorian romance novels. Let me explain...

Regency and Victorian England are two popular time periods that many contemporary historical romance novels are set in, no doubt because of the continued love for Jane Austen over the centuries. From the Bridgerton craze, to stories of capturing dukes and seducing lords, these stories often romanticize the period by reproducing beloved romance tropes - not that I am complaining. These stories can often be imaginative and empowering for many characters that would not have had a voice in reality, and I cannot deny that they are entertaining. 

And yet, under the guise of "accuracy," many of these stories contain stereotypical depictions of characters of lower classes, people of colour, and reproduce harmful language. Such depictions could be used by an author to get the moral of a story across to the reader (when carefully used), and can contribute to character development in many cases. But when the use of stereotypes and harmful language does not serve the moral of the story, who then does it serve? While these aspects may be "accurate," the question we as readers should be asking is, who does this accuracy benefit?

Regardless of whether or not a contemporary publication is depicted in Regency or Victorian England, it is still a product of the twenty-first century, and is therefore a product of contemporary beliefs being reflected onto the nineteenth century. When men on the page use harmful language towards or about women characters for so-called "accuracy," how does this help the reader develop an idea of the Regency or Victorian eras? If the point is to show that some men in that time did not respect women, well...yeah, we know that...but show me how this contributes to the story. Are you as the author trying to show a generational gap, where a father looks down on a woman of a different class, while his son does not hold the same beliefs? If so, is this relevant to the story or is this trope present just because it is "accurate"?

OR, it is possible that I am completely off the mark here, it wouldn't be the first time. I get why authors continue to write about Regency and Victorian England - Let's face it, it's fun to romanticize that time period and breathe new ideas into it. But as a reader who loves this genre, I need to know why harmful language and stereotypes are being introduced. If it is present simply for "accuracy" rather than to develop the story and characters, then I don't think it is necessary. 

I would love to hear some more thoughts on the question of accuracy! Please comment below or follow me on Instagram (@theopinionatedbookworm1) for more fun thoughts such as this. 

Image from: https://images.app.goo.gl/guF5cp7W7MMhG5U18 

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